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RageFuel Many versions of the bible have been adulterated by feminist agecucks

Mainländer

Mainländer

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Look at the original Greek version of 1st Timothy 5:14:


"Neoteras" ( νεωτέρας ) simply means "younger". It has nothing to do with "widow" ("chéra" / "χήρα"). Keeping that in mind, let's look at some of the translations for that passage:

New International Version
"So I counsel younger widows to marry, to have children, to manage their homes and to give the enemy no opportunity for slander."

New Living Translation
"So I advise these younger widows to marry again, have children, and take care of their own homes. Then the enemy will not be able to say anything against them."

English Standard Version
"So I would have younger widows marry, bear children, manage their households, and give the adversary no occasion for slander."

Berean Study Bible
"So I advise the younger widows to marry, have children, and manage their households, denying the adversary occasion for slander."

So on and so forth. There are many more like that, but this thread would get too big. Now let's look at how the 1611 authorized King James Bible translates that verse:

1st Timothy 5:14 KJV:

"I will therefore that the younger women marry, bear children, guide the house, give none occasion to the adversary to speak reproachfully."

Now I understand why some people, rightfully so, say KING JAMES ONLY! It's the best translation available, free from satanic feministic agecuck adulterations and other evil influences.
 
christianity is cucked if single moms are allowed to marry ever again
 
christianity is cucked if single moms are allowed to marry ever again
Biblical Christianity is not cucked. What's cucked is modern denominations that pervert the gospel, the word of God, the doctrines of God, etc.
 
Biblical Christianity is not cucked. What's cucked is modern denominations that pervert the gospel, the word of God, the doctrines of God, etc.
you choose to go against the holy catholic church.A institution set my christ.heresy will forever be heresy
 
Unfaithful translations bother me to no end, so I've just read the passage in question in the King James Bible.
Keep in mind that I don't want to disagree with you, and the general gist of what you're saying almost has to be true, given what we know of the way the world and media works, but looking at this particular instance carefully I do think that the word "women" in 1st Timothy 5:14 KJV does refer to widows specifically and not women generally.

First, it seems to me that 1st Timothy 5: 1-25 is exclusively on the subject of widows.
The entire "chapter" is on the subject of widows and how to deal with their second marriage, etc.

The verse reads:
"I will therefore that the younger women marry, bear children, guide the house, give none occasion to the adversary to speak reproachfully."

The "therefore" indicates that this sentence follows logically from the preceding parts and is a conclusion of the reasoning of what came before it.

Verses 11 through 13 read:

11 But the younger widows refuse: for when they have begun to wax wanton against Christ, they will marry;

12 Having damnation, because they have cast off their first faith.

13 And withal they learn to be idle, wandering about from house to house; and not only idle, but tattlers also and busybodies, speaking things which they ought not.

Since these verses refer to "younger widows," wouldn't that mean that 14 does as well, and "women" refers to "widows"? It would follow that to prevent the younger widows from being tattlers and busybodies, it's recommended that they marry, bear children, and guide the house, right?
I could be wrong, because tbh, I don't really understand the passage fully, but at first glance, the distortion of the original text in later translations (for no matter how you look at it, it's not a 100% faithful translation from the Greek) seems minor to me.
 
I'm no expert whatsoever but it seems to me that the whole chapter is about widows. And that particular verse does not seem to be an exception.
 
you choose to go against the holy catholic church.A institution set my christ.heresy will forever be heresy
But the romanist cult was the one that started the heresy of worshipping Mary. I almost converted to it once, but I studied more and rightly divided the word of truth. I'm non-denominational.
 
Biblical Christianity is not cucked. What's cucked is modern denominations that pervert the gospel, the word of God, the doctrines of God, etc.
 
KJV all the way.
 
Unfaithful translations bother me to no end, so I've just read the passage in question in the King James Bible.
Keep in mind that I don't want to disagree with you, and the general gist of what you're saying almost has to be true, given what we know of the way the world and media works, but looking at this particular instance carefully I do think that the word "women" in 1st Timothy 5:14 KJV does refer to widows specifically and not women generally.

First, it seems to me that 1st Timothy 5: 1-25 is exclusively on the subject of widows.
The entire "chapter" is on the subject of widows and how to deal with their second marriage, etc.

The verse reads:
"I will therefore that the younger women marry, bear children, guide the house, give none occasion to the adversary to speak reproachfully."

The "therefore" indicates that this sentence follows logically from the preceding parts and is a conclusion of the reasoning of what came before it.

Verses 11 through 13 read:

11 But the younger widows refuse: for when they have begun to wax wanton against Christ, they will marry;

12 Having damnation, because they have cast off their first faith.

13 And withal they learn to be idle, wandering about from house to house; and not only idle, but tattlers also and busybodies, speaking things which they ought not.

Since these verses refer to "younger widows," wouldn't that mean that 14 does as well, and "women" refers to "widows"? It would follow that to prevent the younger widows from being tattlers and busybodies, it's recommended that they marry, bear children, and guide the house, right?
I could be wrong, because tbh, I don't really understand the passage fully, but at first glance, the distortion of the original text in later translations (for no matter how you look at it, it's not a 100% faithful translation from the Greek) seems minor to me.
I'm no expert whatsoever but it seems to me that the whole chapter is about widows. And that particular verse does not seem to be an exception.
Tbh the whole chapter is about widows, yes. So I agree that the adding of the word "widows" there is not as bad as I first thought (I admit I got enraged when I saw that verse and thought "wait... I've never seen it!" and then saw the other translations that add the word "widow"). But still, I prefer the KJV translation. Although adjacent verses speak about widows, it's better not to assume that particular verse speaks only about them as well and to put "younger women" in general, also because the fact younger women should marry is compatible with other passages like 1st Corinthians 7:36 and others.

Anyway, I admit I was hasty and jumped to conclusions because of my hatred towards puritan feminism.
 
Although adjacent verses speak about widows, it's better not to assume that particular verse speaks only about them as well and to put "younger women" in general, also because the fact younger women should marry is compatible with other passages like 1st Corinthians 7:36 and others.

I agree. If the original writer used the word "woman," it was a conscious choice on his part. It's dangerous to translate it as "widows." It's far more risky to replace the general with a specific than the other way around because it risks corruption of meaning rather than just vagueness. And there is a way to interpret that verse to mean "women" instead of "widows" without sacrificing all sense. It's just more likely that it refers to widows.
 
I agree. If the original writer used the word "woman," it was a conscious choice on his part. It's dangerous to translate it as "widows." It's far more risky to replace the general with a specific than the other way around because it risks corruption of meaning rather than just vagueness. And there is a way to interpret that verse to mean "women" instead of "widows" without sacrificing all sense. It's just more likely that it refers to widows.
Yeah. "I will therefore that the younger (ones/women) marry" is a better translation because the word widows is omitted, so Paul could very well be concluding that all young women should marry, which also makes sense as a conclusion (lest they become like the women described in the verses before verse 14). But I admit that translating it as "young widows" is not that bad either given the context.

I'm actually relieved. Those other translations are not as corrupt as I first thought concerning this. Phew!
 
the quran still hasnt changed, inshallah the femininists shall never touch our book.
 
THERE is no bible translation for your face!
 

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