There's a difference between objectively false and unsubstantiated
So the eurocentric white supremacist cat is finally out of the bag. Atleast we are now not pretending that this is an objective politically nuetral outlook purely for the sake of le science and data. Better that way instead of pussy footing around the issue.
Let's scrutinize the neonazi narrative in its entirety and break it apart
So the goal here definitely is to glorify the white race and the European people. And it is from this conclusion all the premise are invented and specific language and wording is formed
Firstly, even if we assume that both North Indics and Europeans are descendents from some single group that squatted about in Eurasia. It DOES NOT prove that North Indic culture or genetics have european origin. Or are in any way related to modern europe. Only a common genetic origin for both. The steppe nomads were NOT modern europeans. At this point you might as well argue that all of us migrated out of Africa so Indian culture has African origins. But this is where the neutral data loving science doing neonazis completely reject the scientific consensus since they don't even believe black people are humans.
Secondly, even if it were proven that Europeans have more of yamna dna than North Indics it still DOES NOT PROVE that Europeans have any kind of superiority over north Indics. Infact it just further proves that Indic development across history is divorced from what we now call Europe.
Thirdly, there is absolutely zero proof that there was a conquest of some kind. This is completely pulled out of ass and is so harshly contended that even the neonazi in the video "corrected" himself and called it a migration. (Though he would love for it to be a great european white conquest).
Fourthly, modern genetic research aside it is a fact that North Indics are the only people who practice similar lifestyle to their ancestors did while the supposed "Aryan" culture in Europe completely disappeared by middle ages. So if anyone here is Aryan by that logic it's the north Indics.
So to summarise:
1. Neither modern europeans nor modern Indians are steppe nomads
2. There is no proof of North Indic culture having any origin outside South Asia.
........................
So, what's the intention
behind this narrative?
It's certainly not to prove a conquest of Indians by superior Europeans since the supposed "superiority" of steppe nomads is reverse engineered out of colonial era white supremacy mindset. But an example of that already exists in very recent British conquest of South asia in the same colonial era
.
The only other plausible explaination is an attempt at reappropriation of ancient vedic Indian culture as a european invention. Since the neonazi sees the entire world through a lens of race, for him steppe nomads are basically the same people as modern europeans just because they (supposedly) have a lot of common dna with modern europeans. So even though both the European and Indian populations diverged long ago the neonazi would still claim it as a european victory.
And why does he do it? Probably because neonazis cannot fathom that before the advent of european colonialism and scientific/industrial revolution, white people were basically on equal intellectual footing with the rest of Eurasian continent. This historical fact pretty much breaks the white supremacist view that they brought civilisation to the world.
They would've probably claimed the Chinese culture as a european invention too citing the fact that both the Chinese and Europeans migrated out of Africa, if not for the fact that they hate niggers so much and want nothing to do with them or their continent
