As i have mentioned a few times, we have had carious debates about wether or not "escortceling" is considered a fakecel activity, which would imply in someway it is seen by many as "ascension" of some form.
Now ofc, this isn't a "dead-bedroom" case but rather just getting very occasional, starfish sex as many here term
Generally, I think a good indicator of an answer lies within the fact that most relationships in history often were betabux ones of some kind. A big contributing reason as to why Inceldom was way less of an issue back then lies within this fact, since betabuxxing was easier due to a variety of factors such as cheaper living conditions, easier accessibility to getting a home, jobs being easier to come by, etc.
Not to mention, in most HG societies before human history we see that roughly only 20% -or around 1/4th- of men reproduced:
incels.is
Now ofc, this isn't a "dead-bedroom" case but rather just getting very occasional, starfish sex as many here term
Generally, I think a good indicator of an answer lies within the fact that most relationships in history often were betabux ones of some kind. A big contributing reason as to why Inceldom was way less of an issue back then lies within this fact, since betabuxxing was easier due to a variety of factors such as cheaper living conditions, easier accessibility to getting a home, jobs being easier to come by, etc.
Not to mention, in most HG societies before human history we see that roughly only 20% -or around 1/4th- of men reproduced:
One men for seventeen women reproduced? Let's take a look again. (potential refugee theory)
It's simply nature, in the old days 1 out of 17 men had sex. For thousands of years there has been artificial monogamy created by religion/government to try and pair people 1 man to 1 women so things can be more structured and operate smoothly and so people aren't so suicidal over being incel...
incels.is
Nah, most of the time it has been roughly 1:4 / 20%. I don't know if you are the same guy, but Someone else asked me, where I got these numbers in another thread. There were two blogposts somewhere. One someone else linked by a critique ,who explained how this doesn't make sense and later I found the answer of a participating evolutionary biologist talking about misrepresentation in the mainsteream media. Can't find the blogpost anymore, but here is at least the graph:
https://psmag.com/.image/c_limit,cs_srgb,q_auto:good,w_700/MTI4ODMwNDQ5ODU3MzY5MzYy/men-women-reproducingpng.webp
https://psmag.com/environment/17-to-1-reproductive-success
Something happened, but we don't know what. Maybe the first time when feminism was invented, who knows.
Apparantly it still seems to be the case in some regions. Anyone here who can read the graph?
The dip for europe occures exactly, when farming is thougt to have been invented. Maybe initially the accumulation of produce and land (capital) lead to some kind of big slave class or outcast men until the first Incel uprising happened. Anyone familiar with the times farming was invented in other parts of the world?
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