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Dear fellow white bros and SFcels bro, do you consider Indian Upper Caste folks as your fellow Aryans.

Blackpill Monk

Blackpill Monk

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So my dear fellow white bros and fellow SFcels bros, do you consider the Indian Upper caste folks, like Brahmins as your fellow Aryan brothers. Many Upper caste indian consider themselves Aryan and claim to have of steepe genes and ancestry. So fellow my white European bros, what's your thoughts on them
@DarkStar
 
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Am not Aryan myself, European tho

But I wouldn't say curries of any kind can be considered white Europeans
 
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The so called upper caste pajeets are so delusional, on Twitter they shamelessly claim as Aryan and claiming steppe genes but in reality they looks like a shitskin brown bastard. They are exactly like Black kangers who kang about we wuzz kangs and sheets
 
I do not consider cumskins “aryan”
 
I do not consider cumskins “aryan”
Many Kashmiris both Muslim and Hindus shamelessly called themselves as Aryan, due to thier fair skin. Many Kashmiri Muslims are so hateful towards Muslims of others parts of India
 
The so called upper caste pajeets are so delusional, on Twitter they shamelessly claim as Aryan and claiming steppe genes but in reality they looks like a shitskin brown bastard. They are exactly like Black kangers who kang about we wuzz kangs and sheets
Yeah jfl, I have a knack for putting them down
I do not consider cumskins “aryan”
The term "Aryan" literally comes from the Steppe/Yamnaya invaders....

Curries don't have much of this left, yet it is present in Europeans heavily.
Many Kashmiris both Muslim and Hindus shamelessly called themselves as Aryan, due to thier fair skin. Many Kashmiri Muslims are so hateful towards Muslims of others parts of India
fair skin =/= being White, or even close

As someone else pointed out, "fair-skinned" curries have yellow undertones: Facial features matter also, and they have very different ones from Europeans & even MENA.
 
Many Kashmiris both Muslim and Hindus shamelessly called themselves as Aryan, due to thier fair skin. Many Kashmiri Muslims are so hateful towards Muslims of others parts of India
I do not have fair skin and I do not consider myself “aryan” in that sense. Aryan originally meant speakers of Sanskrit, which is essentially all of northern curryland.

It needs to be reclaimed from cumskins who bastardised the term and dumb currys who are using the bastardised version
 
The term "Aryan" literally comes from the Steppe/Yamnaya invaders....

Curries don't have much of this left, yet it is present in Europeans heavily.
It’s from Proto Indo Iranians who had nothing to do with cumskins
 
fair skin =/= being White, or even close

As someone else pointed out, "fair-skinned" curries have yellow undertones: Facial features matter also, and they have very different ones from Europeans & even MENA
Exactly, low iq subhuman curries think if some one is white or fair skinned, they assume that they are having Aryans/Steppe Europeans genes. They don't know that Aryans/European are a kind of ethinic group and having a distinct genetic cluster. Even levantines, Berbers, Turks, Central Asians, Arab, East Asians are having fair/white skins, but these don't imply that they are Aryans/European and having Steppe Aryan genes
 
Yeah jfl, I have a knack for putting them down
You just log on Twitter and see this subhuman shamelessly claim, steal and appropriate your Identify, culture. They are worst than Black Kangers
 
It’s from Proto Indo Iranians who had nothing to do with cumskins
Proto-Indo-Iranians are the first splinter away from the original Indo-Europeans who conquered Iran.
They literally were related to the rest of the Indo-Europeans, i.e. cumskins.
I don't really think it's that hard to understand. The word Aryan itself is of Indo-European origin, made to describe speakers of Indo-European Sanskrit, now extinct.
 
Proto-Indo-Iranians are the first splinter away from the original Indo-Europeans who conquered Iran.
They literally were related to the rest of the Indo-Europeans, i.e. cumskins.
I don't really think it's that hard to understand. The word Aryan itself is of Indo-European origin, made to describe speakers of Indo-European Sanskrit, now extinct.
You do know that it says Indo in Indo European. And there is no evidence they were cumskins
 
You do know that it says Indo in Indo European.
It does, because the Indo-Europeans expanded into India - and primarily because it originally was a language group including Sanskrit before being considered an ethnic group. The population originated in the Pontic-Caspian Steppe, in modern-day Ukraine and Russia.
And there is no evidence they were cumskins
Haplogroups R1a and R1b are the most common in Europe are identified with the ancient Indo-Europeans.
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/3/36/Mapa_de_R1a.png
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/2/24/Haplogrupo_R1b_%28ADN-Y%29.png

Of course, R1a's map does have a large presence in India, but that's due to the genetic imprint of the Indo-Europeans who conquered, and eventually mixed, into the population. It's almost exclusively found in upper-caste Brahmins.
The Yamnaya in particular are associated with R1b, and are considered (one of) the original PIE cultures before their expansion.
In addition, Steppe ancestries are associated with blonde hair.
Similarly, blue eyes have been traced to the "north-west part of the Black Sea region"... sounds familiar?
 
Proto-Indo-Iranians are the first splinter away from the original Indo-Europeans
No it's Anatolian languages
who conquered Iran.
When and by whom?
They literally were related to the rest of the Indo-Europeans, i.e. cumskins.
No, Europeans and curries have common ancestors of PIE, doesn't mean PIE or Proto-Indo-Iranians (Aryans) were Modern Europeans
I don't really think it's that hard to understand. The word Aryan itself is of Indo-European origin,
Specifically Indo-Iranian of origin, which has fuck all to do with Europeans, because it would have developed in Asia
Sanskrit, now extinct.
It's not extinct jfl
 
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It does, because the Indo-Europeans expanded into India - and primarily because it originally was a language group including Sanskrit before being considered an ethnic group. The population originated in the Pontic-Caspian Steppe, in modern-day Ukraine and Russia.

Haplogroups R1a and R1b are the most common in Europe are identified with the ancient Indo-Europeans.
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/3/36/Mapa_de_R1a.png
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/2/24/Haplogrupo_R1b_%28ADN-Y%29.png

Of course, R1a's map does have a large presence in India, but that's due to the genetic imprint of the Indo-Europeans who conquered, and eventually mixed, into the population. It's almost exclusively found in upper-caste Brahmins.
The Yamnaya in particular are associated with R1b, and are considered (one of) the original PIE cultures before their expansion.
In addition, Steppe ancestries are associated with blonde hair.
Similarly, blue eyes have been traced to the "north-west part of the Black Sea region"... sounds familiar?
No evidence they were cumskins at all there. It’s cumskins appropriating currys and then excluding currys JFL.

I don’t care about cumskins wanting to disassociate from currys but don’t use curry words to disassociate from currys
 
No it's Anatolian languages
Which were Indo-European?
When and by whom?
By Indo-Europeans? Around  2100–1800 BCE, most scholars believe.
No, Europeans and curries have common ancestors of PIE, doesn't mean PIE or Proto-Indo-Iranians (Aryans) were Modern Europeans
They are not, but they are genetically closer to modern Europeans than to modern Indians.
Specifically Indo-Iranian of origin, which has fuck all to do with Europeans, because it would have developed in Asia
Is it that difficult to understand that the Indo-Europeans orignating from the Pontic-Caspian steppe expanded into nearby Iran, bringing their genes (originating in the Eurasian steppe) more into Asia? American and Canadian culture developed in the Americas, but their founders were Europeans. Do they have nothing to do with Euros because it's in a different continent?
 
No evidence they were cumskins at all there. It’s cumskins appropriating currys and then excluding currys JFL.
I'm pretty sure I posted quite a few. You might be unwilling to accept genome autism, but the links I posted to blonde hair and blue eyes seem pretty conclusive to me.
 
It’s from Proto Indo Iranians who had nothing to do with cumskins
1727546859877

Smaller number = less genetic distance. Look which group is at the top, whitest of the whites.
No, Europeans and curries have common ancestors of PIE, doesn't mean PIE or Proto-Indo-Iranians (Aryans) were Modern Europeans
They are not, but they are genetically closer to modern Europeans than to modern Indians.
The Sintashta/Andronovo broke away from the CWC who were basically the first modern Europeans
 
Which were Indo-European?
All of us are Indo-Europeans: most curries, cumskins, some sands. But the Proto-Indo-Europeans according to kurugan theory were Yamnaya
By Indo-Europeans? Around  2100–1800 BCE, most scholars believe.
Which ones? Indo-Iranians who branched off from PIE and developed Aryan word independently. None of rest PIE called themselves Aryan. Aryan was a misnomer term mistakenly attributed to whole of Proto-Indo-European instead of just Proto-Indo-Iranian

They are not, but they are genetically closer to modern Europeans than to modern Indians.
Okay? Even modern Arabs and Iranians are genetically closer to whites than curries, does that make them white Europeans? What is the definition of white you're going with?
Is it that difficult to understand that the Indo-Europeans orignating from the Pontic-Caspian steppe expanded into nearby Iran, bringing their genes (originating in the Eurasian steppe) more into Asia? American and Canadian culture developed in the Americas, but their founders were Europeans. Do they have nothing to do with Euros because it's in a different continent?
Yes, but the word self-identification of "Aryan" only would have taken place in Central Asia not Europe. Which means Modern European aren't descendants of Aryans, but just had a common ancestor
View attachment 1278618
Smaller number = less genetic distance. Look which group is at the top, whitest of the whites.


The Sintashta/Andronovo broke away from the CWC who were basically the first modern Europeans
How does that make Modern Europeans the descendants of Indo-Iranians? It just means they both had a common ancestor, daughter vs sibling relation
 
How does that make Modern Europeans the descendants of Indo-Iranians? It just means they both had a common ancestor, daughter vs sibling relation
What the fuck are you talking about?? I never stated that they are their descendants. In fact I laugh at some coping WNs whenever they say shit like "my ancestors wrote the Vedas!":soy:

The descendants of Proto-Indo-Iranians are curries, Kurds, Iranians, etc. But that doesn't change the fact that the Proto-Indo-Iranians themselves were genetically European. They were literally Yamnaya + EEF autosomally
 
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You will never be white: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_v._Bhagat_Singh_Thind
"The Court unanimously rejected Thind's argument, adding that Thind did not meet a "common sense" definition of white, ruling that Thind could not become a naturalized citizen. The Court concluded that "the term 'Aryan' has to do with linguistic, and not at all with physical characteristics, and it would seem reasonably clear that mere resemblance in language, indicating a common linguistic root buried in remotely ancient soil, is altogether inadequate to prove common racial origin."
 
What the fuck are you talking about?? I never stated that they are their descendants. In fact I laugh at some coping WNs whenever they say shit like "my ancestors wrote the Vedas!":soy:

The descendants of Proto-Indo-Iranians are curries, Kurds, Iranians, etc. But that doesn't change the fact that the Proto-Indo-Iranians themselves were genetically European. They were literally Yamnaya + EEF autosomally
Agreed, wait until WNs learn Aryans worshiped cows, bathed and drank cow piss and thought they were purifying themselves :forcedsmile:
 
All of us are Indo-Europeans: most curries, cumskins, some sands. But the Proto-Indo-Europeans according to kurugan theory were Yamnaya
And the Yamnaya are associated with the R1b gene. Reposting:
https://incels.is/proxy.php?image=https%3A%2F%2Fupload.wikimedia.org%2Fwikipedia%2Fcommons%2F2%2F24%2FHaplogrupo_R1b_%2528ADN-Y%2529.png&hash=bc3d27de76aa428d193bd15d6c6abfe5

Which ones? Indo-Iranians who branched off from PIE and developed Aryan word independently. None of rest PIE called themselves Aryan. Aryan was a misnomer term mistakenly attributed to whole of Proto-Indo-European instead of just Proto-Indo-Iranian
I think that we're having an issue regarding communication and interpretation. I don't necessarily care about usage of the word Aryan (I don't think the Nazis would've considered myself Aryan anyways) and I'm not saying that it was used exclusively to refer to white people (after all, words change over time, and the word Aryan has a history longer than most civilizations) but that the PIEs were "European" (in a physical sense, possessing light skin devoid of much melanin and higher rate of fair hair/eyes) instead.
Okay? Even modern Arabs and Iranians are genetically closer to whites than curries, does that make them white Europeans? What is the definition of white you're going with?
I mostly mean in the sense that modern Europeans are closer to the core, original PIE Steppe population than their Eastern cousins are, in a genetic and physiological sense.
How does that make Modern Europeans the descendants of Indo-Iranians? It just means they both had a common ancestor, daughter vs sibling relation
This once again goes back to our issue communicating... but I could also make the argument that Iranic tribes settled in Europe, before the Migration period, such as the Sarmatians, whose descendants are now the Ossetians. The Romans interacted with them quite often, in fact. But I think that's retarded since I think the Iranian genetic imprint in the areas they settled (besides Ossetia itself) is minimal and irrelevant.
 
Yes , paksitan and north india is aryan
 
I think that we're having an issue regarding communication and interpretation. I don't necessarily care about usage of the word Aryan (I don't think the Nazis would've considered myself Aryan anyways) and I'm not saying that it was used exclusively to refer to white people (after all, words change over time, and the word Aryan has a history longer than most civilizations)
Okay agreed
possessing light skin devoid of much melanin and higher rate of fair hair/eyes) instead.
No not Proto-Indo-Europeans (Yamnaya) maybe Proto-Indo-Iranians (Aryans) maybe

A 2022 study by Lazaridis et al. found that the typical phenotype among the Yamnaya population was brown eyes, brown hair, and intermediate skin colour. None of their Yamnaya samples were predicted to have either blue eyes or blond hair, in contrast with later Steppe groups in Russia and Central Asia, as well as the Bell Beaker culture in Europe, who did carry these phenotypes in high proportions
 
No not Proto-Indo-Europeans (Yamnaya) maybe Proto-Indo-Iranians (Aryans) maybe


they probably were a mix-match of both tbqh considering that they emerged around the same time the first mutations of blonde hair and blue eyes appeared
>Some Yamnaya individuals are believed to have carried a mutation to the KITLG gene associated with blond hair, as several individuals with Steppe ancestry are later found to carry this mutation. The Ancient North Eurasian Afontova Gora group, who contributed significant ancestry to Western Steppe Herders, are believed to be the source of this mutation.
they probably didn't make up the majority, but i do think there was a portion of them possessing more fair features
 
Proto-Indo-Iranians are the first splinter away from the original Indo-Europeans who conquered Iran.
They literally were related to the rest of the Indo-Europeans, i.e. cumskins.
I don't really think it's that hard to understand. The word Aryan itself is of Indo-European origin, made to describe speakers of Indo-European Sanskrit, now extinct.
Yeah jfl, I'll never understand the mental gymnastics these guys will do.
It does, because the Indo-Europeans expanded into India - and primarily because it originally was a language group including Sanskrit before being considered an ethnic group. The population originated in the Pontic-Caspian Steppe, in modern-day Ukraine and Russia.

Haplogroups R1a and R1b are the most common in Europe are identified with the ancient Indo-Europeans.
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/3/36/Mapa_de_R1a.png
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/2/24/Haplogrupo_R1b_%28ADN-Y%29.png

Of course, R1a's map does have a large presence in India, but that's due to the genetic imprint of the Indo-Europeans who conquered, and eventually mixed, into the population. It's almost exclusively found in upper-caste Brahmins.
The Yamnaya in particular are associated with R1b, and are considered (one of) the original PIE cultures before their expansion.
In addition, Steppe ancestries are associated with blonde hair.
Similarly, blue eyes have been traced to the "north-west part of the Black Sea region"... sounds familiar?
:bigbrain::feelsthink:
No evidence they were cumskins at all there. It’s cumskins appropriating currys and then excluding currys JFL.

I don’t care about cumskins wanting to disassociate from currys but don’t use curry words to disassociate from currys
They literally were

>the term Aryan has a root in Yamnaya culture
>Yamnaya/Steppe DNA is found in all Europeans/Whites nowadays at a high amount

These are the Steppe/Yamnya facial reconstruction:

FSFosJFXsAEQQ7Q.jpg
 

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