pedrolopezwasright
Overlord
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- Joined
- Jul 18, 2024
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Morals are linear unless you want to fully refute them as non-existent, but here you are supposedly argue for their existence by descriptively referring to them. Also I quite don't understand the wording my logic was that, one thing is immoral because its disgusting and obviously not because it does lack consent, other thing is moral because it is not disgusting, lack or not lack of consent will never refute its logical morality since its not disgusting. Especially considering that lack of free will of a woman is comparable to animal due to imperative of hypergamy such comparison can be made, therefore zoophilia > bad because disgusting not because lack consent, rape > good because is not disgusting. The only logic which can be applied to lower being "woman" is this type of logic, since any higher order reasoning involve fully developed free willJust because one thing is immoral because of it being disgusting doesn't mean another thing cannot be immoral because it lacks consent. They are not exclusive and morals are not that linear.





