KingOfRome
Buff Auschwitz Escapee
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- Joined
- Jan 17, 2018
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- 8,039
Although it is true that people tend to form clusters of genetically similar groups within geographic areas, the number of these clusters isn't strictly defined. If you already have an idea of the number of these clusters and take samples from each group to test for genetic similarity, each one would be similar to samples in its own group and different from those in other groups, which would apparently prove race theory. However, this effect is not affected by a change in the number of defined clusters, and clusters also exist within clusters. For example, if you took samples from white, black, Indian, and East Asian people--four clusters--you would have clearly defined clusters, or "races". However, if you took one of these clusters and further divided them into four clusters--for example, if you took whites and divided them into northern, southern, central, and east European--you would have the same effect. Even one of these smaller clusters could be further divided--say, northern European into English, Scottish, Irish, and Scandinavian. How far does race theory have to go before every human being on the planet constitutes his own race?