B
based_meme
I.N.C.E.L. High Command, Psychological Operations
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If by statement you mean claim, then yes, claims about murder are normative, which makes them morally charged (or have moral weight, same difference). "Personal" in this context means morally neutral (or not morally charged) and affecting you personally. You could make some moral case that cutting in line is unethical, because it breaks the social contract, disrupts the peace, disrespects people's time, and is anti-social behavior (inherently unfair), but then it wouldn't be a personal claim, because it would then be generalizable to all people who engage in this behavior.So any statement about murder is always moral, whereas any claim about cutting in line is always personal? If so, I'm interested in the why because this is nonsensical to me.
The claim, "I can bench press 200 kgs," for example, is not a moral claim, but an empirical claim that also happens to be personal. (That claim is false, btw, I can't - and won't ever attempt in my entire life - to bench press 200 kgs.)
Arguments are evaluated on both their validity and soundness, but premises are evaluated only their truth values. So in order to evaluate whether or not arguments are sound the truth values of their premises need to be examined.Seeing as anything can be justified by simply taking the desideratum as premise, I beg to differ. Not to mention there are only two structural possibilities: either your argument is logically sound or it's worthless.
It's also not the case that any premise is ipso facto justifiable because it's taken for being desirable (its state of desirability is not sufficient justification). You can have a valid, but unsound, argument. You still need to show how your premises are true, if they're weak.
But they can. It happens all of the time when philosophers make arguments. They go the painstaking process of writing entire books about arguments that could be summed up in a page or two whose premises they try and justify.A strong argument against those premises? A premise that cannot be justified (and if it could why is it even a premise) cannot be rebuked either.
I don't know much about the system of virtue ethics on any deep level. You'd have to investigate the works for a strong answer, I'm afraid.Of these, virtue ethics and consequentialism simply defer the problem "downstream". In virtue ethics, moral rectitude is to be virtuous, but what is a virtue?
It's similar, but still fundamentally different. Read Kant and then try to compare each system of ethics. You'll soon see that there's little in common beyond intentionality.Ditto for consequentialism. NB ain't theology and deontology basically the same thing -- i.e., moral rectitude being accordance with some set of rules?
Big if. Your operating under a framework that it is, so that is something you must take as a given. What exactly is your framework?Regardless, if the definition of moral rectitude is in the eye of the beholder, how can
possibly be true? I can simply choose not to define moral rectitude, no?
Yes, I agree. There's no problem there.What I meant to convey was that something being undesirable doesn't necessarily equate it to being morally "bad".
Are you asking why is murder always bad, but divorce isn't always? Or are you asking why murder is more bad than divorce?Despite both often being undesirable for one of the parties involved, why is murder "bad" but divorce not so much these days?
It is generally the case that things which are undesirable are bad (pain, discomfort, trauma), hence why they are considered undesirable. But there also some cases where things that are undesirable (working out, studying hard) are good.In Christian America and Europe, divorce was "bad" and burning "witches" was once "good". Getting back on topic, your appeal to instinct does apply to subjective undesirability. However, it doesn't ipso facto translate to moral "badness".
You're correct in that undesirability does not translate into moral badness, and I never claimed otherwise. I don't understand your point of contention here. Please elaborate.
That's fine, don't worry about the error. My response is the same. In the hypothetical liar example the liar is a hypocrite because the act of hypocrisy in this instance is his (normative) claim about lying itself. The behavior - the condition required for hypocrisy - is baked in to the utterance of his words, whereas with other acts of hypocrisy there are usually further actions required, like cheating (gambling, infidelity, taxes etc.).I don't understand. How does making a claim that's congruent with intent constitute hypocrisy? NB when I wrote
I should've writ
It appears I'm not at my sharpest. Yet again my excuses.