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Is asceticism useless as an incel?

SandNiggerKANG

SandNiggerKANG

تعالى أدلعك
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I think it’s a cope because you deny yourself of pleasures (even basic pleasures) while others are living the best. It also becomes a dick measuring contest in and of itself to see who can abstain the most. That gives someone a hit too. Depending on the person it can drive someone crazy
Thoughts?
 
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idk it sounds like fun ig
 
I think it’s a cope because you deny yourself of pleasures (even basic pleasures) while others are living the best. It also becomes a dick measuring contest in and of itself to see who can abstain the most. That gives someone a hit too. Depending on the person it can drive someone crazy
Thoughts?
Just be Buddhist theory
 
I think it's a cope that a few incels can actually do
 
Buddha was a chad confirmed?
IMG 1051
 
it just gives you a sense of righteousness to justify your inferiority. many such copes for incels
 
Buddha was a chad confirmed?
I mean, he was royalty. Utimately, it's impossible for an incel to be an ascetic. You have to have bitches to give them up.
 
If anything else, spending less materialistically on your copes serves a practical purpose if you're not that into spirituality and mysticism.
 
I've always thought of becoming an ascetic. I feel like it would make me forget about the world and I could cope by saying that me depriving myself of pleasures is actually a good thing rather than thinking that I am missing out on the world.
 
Asceticism can easily be misguided, if your intents are rooted in egotistical and superficial reasons. Living an ascetic life is not a lifestyle choice like going to the gym or doing drugs, nor should it ever be treated disrespectfully as a fad. It's a fundamental change in who you choose to be for the rest of your life. If it ever becomes a dick measuring contest, as you say, then the asceticism isn't real and is doomed from the start. It also might be your own cynicism viewing it from the outside, since you cannot know anyone's internal state but your own.
 
It's one of the biggest copes out there.
 
Schopenhauer recommended it as a way to fight against the will
 
In regard to the titular question, why would being an incel make it less or more useless?
If it ever becomes a dick measuring contest, as you say, then the asceticism isn't real
If the end result is askesis, do the intentions really matter?
 
I think it’s a cope because you deny yourself of pleasures (even basic pleasures) while others are living the best. It also becomes a dick measuring contest in and of itself to see who can abstain the most. That gives someone a hit too. Depending on the person it can drive someone crazy
Thoughts?
IM ABSTAININNNNG
 
If the end result is askesis, do the intentions really matter?
I'd argue yes, because if you end the dick measuring contest, then the intent changes, which then affects the askesis. Implicit in that is the fact that it becomes a dick measuring contest precisely because of the intent to make it one.

Motivations are directly tied to intent. The spirit of asceticism, as I understand it, is to find the motivation to pursue the attainment of some ideal. Such motivations (idealistic) are found intrinsically. Someone else can't show you the ideal for you to hold in your mind. Going in there with the intent of one-upmanship is using an extrinsic motivator that is not congruent with the pursuit of some ideal (and is in fact petty). In other words by having the wrong intent you're not being ascetic in your attempt at asceticism.
 
It's a retarded thing to do to yourself. Why deny yourself the few pleasures you have? Why make yourself even more miserable than the average person?
 
It's a retarded thing to do to yourself. Why deny yourself the few pleasures you have? Why make yourself even more miserable than the average person?
Ancient Greeks used it as a way to hone themselves for combat or other pursuits. In today's world I agree, it's fucking dumb, unless you're an elite athlete/soldier/performer.
 
Ancient Greeks used it as a way to hone themselves for combat or other pursuits. In today's world I agree, it's fucking dumb, unless you're an elite athlete/soldier/performer.
Yep. Unless you have something really important to do, it's retarded not enjoy whatever you can
 
The spirit of asceticism, as I understand it, is to find the motivation to pursue the attainment of some ideal.
I thought asceticism was about discipline rather than motivation with the ideal in question always being self-denial.
Such motivations (idealistic) are found intrinsically.
Are they tho? Religious asceticism and
Ancient Greeks used it as a way to hone themselves for combat
are grounded in external motivations.
In other words by having the wrong intent you're not being ascetic in your attempt at asceticism.
Ain't it always a dick-measuring contest to some extent? I mean, if most people are denying themselves more than you, are you comparatively even still an ascetic? Or are we all ascetics?
 
I thought asceticism was about discipline rather than motivation with the ideal in question always being self-denial.
I understood it to mean the attainment of ideal (in combat skill, for example) through intense discipline - as a means - not with intense discipline as the end result.

Are they tho? Religious asceticism and

are grounded in external motivations.
They could be, no doubt, but ideals themselves are fundamentally internal. We can both think about the same thing, but hold very different ideals. Here's a simple example: think of the perfect chair. I can guarantee you that practically no two ideals in two people's minds will be the same. Even the way you would imagine the circumstances (the lighting, the angle, whether or not anyone's sitting on it, what's happening around the chair etc.) would be different.

So while the motivations could be material and/or external in consequence, the motivations themselves are driven internally in pursuit of an ideal wrt to that goal. That internal motivational drive is generated through intent.

This is how I've always understood asceticism. If this is fundamentally wrong, then I've misunderstood asceticism.

Ain't it always a dick-measuring contest to some extent? I mean, if most people are denying themselves more than you, are you comparatively even still an ascetic? Or are we all ascetics?
No. Here I would maintain that whether or not something is a dick-measuring contest i.e., a one-upmanship competition for bragging rights and chest-pounding for the purpose of status gain, is still intentional and against the spirit of asceticism. This may simply come down to a difference in your worldview wrt to intentionality and outcomes. Are you consequentialist, by any chance?

Think of some religion. Let's choose Christianity, for example. Many devoted Christians would tell you that the purpose behind Christianity is accepting Jesus Christ into your heart and entering the Kingdom of Heaven to enjoin with the Holy Spirit, or some flavor of this, based on the core tenets of their beliefs. A feature of Christianity is that once you've accepted Jesus Christ as your lord and savior, then all of your past sins are automatically forgiven. A person in jail who has committed many heinous may intend to join this religion with the purpose of deluding themselves into being accepted socially in some capacity, since they're not accepted as a criminal in society. We may or may not be able to infer their reasons (motivations), based on observable evidence, but absent any evidence we must defer their intent to the aforementioned religious purpose.

On a related note, hypocrisy - both as a concept and a behavior - wouldn't exist, if intentionality was not a central factor.
 
I understood it to mean the attainment of ideal (in combat skill, for example) through intense discipline - as a means - not with intense discipline as the end result.
This is how I've always understood asceticism. If this is fundamentally wrong, then I've misunderstood asceticism.
To me asceticism is synonymous with self-denial, but I'm no expert.
So while the motivations could be material and/or external in consequence, the motivations themselves are driven internally in pursuit of an ideal wrt to that goal. That internal motivational drive is generated through intent.
OK that makes sense with your definition of asceticism.
Here I would maintain that whether or not something is a dick-measuring contest i.e., a one-upmanship competition for bragging rights and chest-pounding for the purpose of status gain, is still intentional and against the spirit of asceticism.
Can one not be ascetic with the ideal to be a mogger then? Regardless, all I meant with
Ain't it always a dick-measuring contest to some extent? I mean, if most people are denying themselves more than you, are you comparatively even still an ascetic? Or are we all ascetics?
is that self-denial is a relative notion.
Are you consequentialist, by any chance?
I don't really like ascribing moral value to conduct. I'd just be projecting my opinions onto others. Personally I do often judge conduct based on its consequences, but I like to think I abstain from assigning it moral value.
Many devoted Christians would tell you that the purpose behind Christianity is accepting Jesus Christ into your heart and entering the Kingdom of Heaven to enjoin with the Holy Spirit, or some flavor of this
I take it you mean "conjoin" in lieu of "enjoin"
but absent any evidence we must defer their intent to the aforementioned religious purpose.
In the case of the supposedly converted prisoner, their situation is evidence, so we ain't without evidence. I feel like you're applying a general maxim (a pleonasm I know) however. If so, could you state it?
On a related note, hypocrisy - both as a concept and a behavior - wouldn't exist, if intentionality was not a central factor.
I'd say that not practicing what one preaches is hypocritical, altho this use of "hypocritical" -- while common -- might not be entirely proper.
 
To me asceticism is synonymous with self-denial, but I'm no expert.
Self-denial can have many forms. If the doctor forbids certain foods in your diet because of your blood work, you would be exercising self-denial when you choose to follow his orders because you intend to correct your potential health risk.

It comes back around to intent.

Can one not be ascetic with the ideal to be a mogger then? Regardless, all I meant with
I don't know. Is there an "ideal mogger," or does mogging have some kind of ideal? I don't understand what that's supposed to be or look like.

is that self-denial is a relative notion.
Relative, how? Relative to what? Can you elaborate?

I don't really like ascribing moral value to conduct.
Like it or not, all conduct has moral value. Sometimes that value is nil (or neutral).

I'd just be projecting my opinions onto others.
That's not necessarily true. An opinion is simply an unjustified claim. If you can justify your opinion with reason, then it becomes your argument, not your opinion. Then it must be responded to with reason, if there's disagreement.

Cultures should really start adopting the norm of demanding reasons for opinions and harshly dismissing opinions that aren't justified.

Perhaps one day.

Personally I do often judge conduct based on its consequences, but I like to think I abstain from assigning it moral value.
That's essentially consequentialist thinking.

I take it you mean "conjoin" in lieu of "enjoin"
Yes, my mistake. Thanks.

In the case of the supposedly converted prisoner, their situation is evidence, so we ain't without evidence.
I meant, enough evidence.

I feel like you're applying a general maxim (a pleonasm I know) however. If so, could you state it?
Not really. You take things, like what people tell you, at face value, unless there's something else that may suggest deception (such as the setting or context). That's just being fair and reasonable. That's not specific to this topic. What maxim do you think I'm operating under?

I'd say that not practicing what one preaches is hypocritical, altho this use of "hypocritical" -- while common -- might not be entirely proper.
Hypocrisy when intents are incongruent with observable actions, and there's a disconnect between what's being said and what's being done. Why would this not be proper?
 
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I don't know. Is there an "ideal mogger," or does mogging have some kind of ideal? I don't understand what that's supposed to be or look like.
the ideal I had in mind was "mogging as many people as possible in as many ways as possible so you can brag about it". I don't even think this is all that academic.
Relative, how? Relative to what? Can you elaborate?
If most are denying themselves more than you, can you really be said to be practicing self-denial?
Like it or not, all conduct has moral value. Sometimes that value is nil (or neutral).
What is morality then?
That's not necessarily true. An opinion is simply an unjustified claim. If you can justify your opinion with reason, then it becomes your argument, not your opinion. Then it must be responded to with reason, if there's disagreement.
this is not what I had in mind when I used the word "opinion". To me a subjective argument is an opinion. Since we're talking about ethics and ethics is superphysical, all ethics must ultimately fall back on subjective axioms. No amount of reason can justify these axioms (as per definition) so as long as people disagree on the axioms, there's no reason to be had. Ultimately this is therefore a matter of opinion (do you agree with the axioms).
Cultures should really start adopting the norm of demanding reasons for opinions and harshly dismissing opinions that aren't justified.
Good luck crystalizing what a sufficient justification entails. Besides, at the end of the day it's all about trust, and plenty of folks trust without thoroughly justified opinions.
That's essentially consequentialist thinking.
I know. Ain't virtually everybody like that tho?
You take things, like what people tell you, at face value, unless there's something else that may suggest deception (such as the setting or context).
that's a maxim, no? I'm honestly not even so sure whether I abide thereby. If someone told me they saw the far future in a prophetic dream, I'd be skeptical, yet there's little to suggest deception (assuming they don't lie all the time).
Hypocrisy when intents are incongruent with observable actions, and there's a disconnect between what's being said and what's being done. Why would this not be proper?
Because intentions ≠ what's being said, not necessarily anyway. Or would a "cheating is fine so long as you can get away with it" guy be hypocritical when he lyingly says "no I'm not cheating"?
 
Asceticism for suffering's sake is retarded. But material minimalism is useful. Why complicate your miserable life with useless junk that weighs you down?
 
the ideal I had in mind was "mogging as many people as possible in as many ways as possible so you can brag about it". I don't even think this is all that academic.
OK, I see.

If most are denying themselves more than you, can you really be said to be practicing self-denial?
Yes. It's a difference of degree, not of kind.

What is morality then?
A system or collection of ideas of right and wrong conduct.
this is not what I had in mind when I used the word "opinion". To me a subjective argument is an opinion.
Arguments are not subjective. They're true/false, valid/invalid, and sound/unsound. The content of propositions presented in the logic don't matter, if the truth values (true or false) are determined.

Since we're talking about ethics and ethics is superphysical, all ethics must ultimately fall back on subjective axioms. No amount of reason can justify these axioms (as per definition) so as long as people disagree on the axioms, there's no reason to be had. Ultimately this is therefore a matter of opinion (do you agree with the axioms).
We've been through this before. Last time you didn't define superphysical in any meaningful way that delineates it from metaphysical in any substantive way. You replaced the word metaphysical with "superphysical," because I showed that morality is not metaphysical. You changed the word so that you could maintain this argument:
Since morality is metaphysical, any moral justification must eventually fall back on moral axioms that can only be justified by circular reasoning.
But since I argued that it's not metaphysical, then the moral justifications are not circular and can be justified beyond a reference to the axioms.

Good luck crystalizing what a sufficient justification entails. Besides, at the end of the day it's all about trust, and plenty of folks trust without thoroughly justified opinions.
Making a strong argument with good reason, preferably one that's difficult to refute. If it's valid, sound, and true, then not accepting it is irrational behavior, if it's not refuted.

I know. Ain't virtually everybody like that tho?
No. Not everyone is a consequentialist. I'm certainly not. There are many ardent deontologists. Some religions have a theological ethic that is based on intents, not results.

that's a maxim, no? I'm honestly not even so sure whether I abide thereby. If someone told me they saw the far future in a prophetic dream, I'd be skeptical, yet there's little to suggest deception (assuming they don't lie all the time).
That's a maxim, yes, but not one that would always apply (general truths can have exceptions). In your case of the claim of a prophetic dream, for example, that maxim wouldn't be applicable, even though there may not be anything to indicate intent to decieve (all deception is intentional; there is no such thing as "accidental deception," is an oxymoron). In that instance you'd probably apply other reasoning methods, like abductive reasoning.

Because intentions ≠ what's being said, not necessarily anyway.
Yes, that's precisely why it would be hypocrisy.

Or would a "cheating is fine so long as you can get away with it" guy be hypocritical when he lyingly says "no I'm not cheating"?
No, he wouldn't be a hypocrite, he'd just be a liar. If he were to go around preaching the virtues and importance of practicing marital fidelity and expressing scorn towards the unfaithful, then he would be a hypocrite in addition to being a liar.
 
A system or collection of ideas of right and wrong conduct.
So not only is morality subjective, but it can also just be a bunch of opinions? You never specified needing justification.
Arguments are not subjective. They're true/false, valid/invalid, and sound/unsound. The content of propositions presented in the logic don't matter, if the truth values (true or false) are determined.
By a subjective argument I meant an argument which is ultimately undergirded by a subjective opinion. I thought this was clear from context, my bad.
We've been through this before. Last time you didn't define superphysical in any meaningful way that delineates it from metaphysical in any substantive way. You replaced the word metaphysical with "superphysical," because I showed that morality is not metaphysical.
the only reason I switched is because I got the impression you were using the word "metaphysical" differently than I was. I was trying to accommodate you. What I mean by superphysical is "not inferable by studying that which is physical" AKA "beyond physics" as the compound implies. Unless you have some units in which I can go and measure moral rectitude, how can it be not be superphysical?
moral justifications are not circular and can be justified beyond a reference to the axioms
Of course you CAN tie your morality to that which is physical, but that doesn't mean that moral rectitude ain't superphysical SIMPLICITER
general truths can have exceptions
ok fair enough
If he were to go around preaching the virtues and importance of practicing marital fidelity and expressing scorn towards the unfaithful, then he would be a hypocrite in addition to being a liar.
Yeah ok that's not a counterexample. Got me there. How about this one? Suppose our hypothetical guy is intent on always lying. To act in accordance with his intent, he has to reply "you should always tell the truth" if prompted to opine on lying. this time what he's saying is advice he himself would never follow, yet he's acting in line with his intent.

PS I meant cheating as in gambling. Interesting your mind went to marital infidelity. Not that it really matters tho.
 
So not only is morality subjective, but it can also just be a bunch of opinions?
No. Opinions are simply unjustified claims.. They are, in essence, beliefs that have yet to be justified. A moral claim is one type of claim. Opinions are a type of personal claim. Both can be justified or unjustified.

You never specified needing justification.
Because that's understood to be a given. Justification means to provide reasons. All claims needs reasoning to become arguments. If claims without any justification are accepted, then accepting the claim is irrational.

By a subjective argument I meant an argument which is ultimately undergirded by a subjective opinion. I thought this was clear from context, my bad.
The phrase itself is meaningless. It's like the phrase, "colorful numbers."

the only reason I switched is because I got the impression you were using the word "metaphysical" differently than I was. I was trying to accommodate you. What I mean by superphysical is "not inferable by studying that which is physical" AKA "beyond physics" as the compound implies. Unless you have some units in which I can go and measure moral rectitude, how can it be not be superphysical?
OK, but reason itself is "beyond physics." However, we don't look to the natural world for our reasons for everything. Morality is one such thing.

"Physical," in the context of the discussion of ethics, means that the reasons refer to that which is accessible (and thus referenceable) to us, unlike the metaphysical. People often make the error in thinking that because everything is subjective (first person experience), that reasons must either also be subjective or that they must be metaphysical and apply to anything that is not subjective, like morals, which is what you seemed to be arguing before.

Of course you CAN tie your morality to that which is physical, but that doesn't mean that moral rectitude ain't superphysical SIMPLICITER
Right, and if moral rectitude is simply metaphysical, then its justifications are not tied to any subjective first person experience. This is what ethics is about - finding reasons to justify behaviors (generally, or universally) that are beyond any subjective self.

I get the impression that you've intuited that there must be an inherent disconnect between the objectivity of reason (as can be applied to morality) and a person's subjectivity.

Yeah ok that's not a counterexample. Got me there.
Is that a typo? Did you mean to say it is a counterexample?

How about this one? Suppose our hypothetical guy is intent on always lying. To act in accordance with his intent, he has to reply "you should always tell the truth" if prompted to opine on lying. this time what he's saying is advice he himself would never follow, yet he's acting in line with his intent.
I don't understand what you're trying to do here. Are you trying to apply the logic of lying in a paradoxical situation to show that hypocrisy and lying are the same thing?

PS I meant cheating as in gambling. Interesting your mind went to marital infidelity. Not that it really matters tho.
It's the same underlying concept: having an unfair advantage. In the case of marital infidelity the unfair advantage is breaking the contract of monogamy that precludes having additional sexual partners.

Suppose it were gambling. The gambling cheater would be a hypocrite, for example, if he were to punish or admonish another for cheating or to speak openly about the evils of cheating and the need be vigilant against them in order to protect the integrity of the game.

Cheating in any sense is clearly deception, of which lying is also a subtype of. Hypocrisy can thought of as a special case of deception. Both cheating in gambling and lying in general fall under deception, but hypocrisy is conditional on further actions. It's can be enough that a person can say one thing, but believe another, to be a hypocrite. But in order to identify hypocrisy, you typically need to observe an action that goes against their stated beliefs.
 
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A moral claim is one type of claim. Opinions are a type of personal claim.
How is a moral claim not a personal claim? Morality is more than just reason. No point to inference rules when you ain't got nothin' to apply 'em on.

If claims without any justification are accepted, then accepting the claim is irrational.
how do you rhyme that with
You take things, like what people tell you, at face value, unless there's something else that may suggest deception
the former essentially says not to accept a claim unless you have a reason to whereas the latter essentially says to accept a claim unless you have a reason not to

The phrase itself is meaningless. It's like the phrase, "colorful numbers."
any phrase is meaningless to the uninitiated

OK, but reason itself is "beyond physics." However, we don't look to the natural world for our reasons for everything. Morality is one such thing.
fundamentally reason and moral rectitude are indeed superphysical. However, indirectly we always look to the natural world for everything. It's all we got after all. Case in point, why do you think addition is defined the way it is? Because it's useful.
"Physical," in the context of the discussion of ethics, means that the reasons refer to that which is accessible (and thus referenceable) to us, unlike the metaphysical.
that's how I was using "physical" as well
People often make the error in thinking that because everything is subjective (first person experience), that reasons must either also be subjective or that they must be metaphysical and apply to anything that is not subjective, like morals, which is what you seemed to be arguing before.
Reasons gotta be undergirded by something (other than inference rules). What I'm saying is that those underpinnings are necessarily subjective in the case of morality.

Right, and if moral rectitude is simply metaphysical, then its justifications are not tied to any subjective first person experience.
the notion of moral rectitude is superphysical. However, ethics consists of assigning this superphysical attribute to actions which are most certainly not superphysical. In the same way that a triplet of apples can be assigned the superphysical attribute 3.

Moral justification occurs when trying to bridge the physical (actions) and the superphysical (moral rectitude). However, since there are no bridges to begin with, the very first bridge cannot itself be meaningfully justified. If we're willing to justify some initial bridges without argument (axioms) however, then we can use reason to justifiably explore the logical consequences of our axioms.
This is what ethics is about - finding reasons to justify behaviors (generally, or universally) that are beyond any subjective self.
To continue to previous metaphor, the very first bridge is necessarily subjective, so any ethical argument can ultimately be traced back to subjectivity.
I get the impression that you've intuited that there must be an inherent disconnect between the objectivity of reason (as can be applied to morality) and a person's subjectivity.
Unless our inference rules are God-given, the only reason we're using them as opposed to other inference rules is because of collective agreement, which is probably because they "work" when applied to the natural world (as opposed to bogus logic). I'm therefore not quite sure what you mean by "objectivity" here.

Is that a typo? Did you mean to say it is a counterexample?
I don't understand what you're trying to do here. Are you trying to apply the logic of lying in a paradoxical situation to show that hypocrisy and lying are the same thing?
Remember that I said "practice what you preach" ain't proper hypocrisy and you claimed it was? I was trying to find a counterexample to refute you.

It's the same underlying concept: having an unfair advantage. In the case of marital infidelity the unfair advantage is breaking the contract of monogamy that precludes having additional sexual partners.
that's why I said
Not that it really matters tho.
 
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How is a moral claim not a personal claim?
"Murders should be executed" is a moral claim, but it's not a personal one. "People who cut in line shouldn't be served" would be an example personal claim.

Morality is more than just reason.
Morality is the reasoning behind descriptive and prescriptive behaviors (driven by normative claims about behavior), and the systems thereof. All of ethics is driven by reason. Your personal moral compass may be driven by feelings that you can't provide reasons and make arguments for, however, but that's a different matter.

No point to inference rules when you ain't got nothin' to apply 'em on.
It's reasoning about behavior in reference to other reasoning agents (people), other living things, or the environment of the reasoning agent.

how do you rhyme that with

the former essentially says not to accept a claim unless you have a reason to whereas the latter essentially says to accept a claim unless you have a reason not to
You asked for a general maxim (or something that could be construed as one). That discussion was a response to claims of intent wrt to asceticism or ascetic behaviors. The maxim is basically, "assume people are honest, until proven otherwise." The point about accepting claims without justification was in regards all claims in general (moral, descriptive, normative, empirical etc.).

any phrase is meaningless to the uninitiated
I'm saying there's no such thing as a "subjective argument" in the philosophical sense. To speak more to you, that's like saying there's a "subjective proof" (of an unproven theorem). If you heard the phrase,"subjective proof," in the context of mathematics, you would see that also as just meaningless nonsense.

fundamentally reason and moral rectitude are indeed superphysical. However, indirectly we always look to the natural world for everything. It's all we got after all. Case in point, why do you think addition is defined the way it is? Because it's useful.

that's how I was using "physical" as well

Reasons gotta be undergirded by something (other than inference rules). What I'm saying is that those underpinnings are necessarily subjective in the case of morality.
That's like saying, "mathematical reasons have to be undergirded by something (other than the Peano, ZFC and all of the other axioms)."

It doesn't. That's why they work the way that they do. Reason without the inference rules of logic doesn't work. That is its undergird.

the notion of moral rectitude is superphysical. However, ethics consists of assigning this superphysical attribute to actions which are most certainly not superphysical. In the same way that a triplet of apples can be assigned the superphysical attribute 3.

Moral justification occurs when trying to bridge the physical (actions) and the superphysical (moral rectitude). However, since there are no bridges to begin with, the very first bridge cannot itself be meaningfully justified. If we're willing to justify some initial bridges without argument (axioms) however, then we can use reason to justifiably explore the logical consequences of our axioms.
By your own reasoning, there is no bridge between the metaphysical number 3 and the triplet of apples. It's only the fact of observing reality that we can look at the apples and make a reference to the metaphysical numbers that we formally construct.

In the same vein, behaviors are observed, and we can make observations in reference to a metaphysical "good" and "bad" and assign values of "good" and "bad" (I'm sure you already intuitive know that assault and murder are both "bad" but murder is "more bad" than assault, without having to quantify it precisely in a formal system), not entirely like integers assigned to discrete objects, granted, but the process is the same. Some people have then gone a step further - with reason as the building blocks - and formalized systems of behavior that we know today in its many forms.

To continue to previous metaphor, the very first bridge is necessarily subjective, so any ethical argument can ultimately be traced back to subjectivity.
Moral arguments are still arguments that have reasoning (good or bad will depend on how the arguments are constructed).

I think there's a disconnect here, which is why you're hung up on this notion of subjectivity with regards to argumentation, specifically moral argumentation. You should read the seminal works of the philosophers who've built their ethical systems to get a better idea of how ethical arguments are not inherently subjective.

Unless our inference rules are God-given, the only reason we're using them as opposed to other inference rules is because of collective agreement, which is probably because they "work" when applied to the natural world (as opposed to bogus logic).
Yes, this is true in regards to theological systems of morality, but not secular ones.

I'm therefore not quite sure what you mean by "objectivity" here.
I meant reason itself. If you make a good argument for a proof, we don't say that the argument is subjective, because it stands on its own reasons. Likewise, if person A makes a good argument for X, we don't say that the argument is subjective. Person A may have made the argument, but the argument, too, stands on its own reasons. It just has their name on it.

Remember that I said "practice what you preach" ain't proper hypocrisy and you claimed it was? I was trying to find a counterexample to refute you.
If you're saying that it isn't, can you argue for why that is?

that's why I said
:feelsokman:
 
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I had to google it. I already do this tbh. Only time when i treat myself is one energy drink every few days. I never indulge too much into any cope.
 
"Murders should be executed" is a moral claim, but it's not a personal one. "People who cut in line shouldn't be served" would be an example personal claim.
I fail to see the crucial difference.

That's like saying, "mathematical reasons have to be undergirded by something (other than the Peano, ZFC and all of the other axioms)."

It doesn't. That's why they work the way that they do. Reason without the inference rules of logic doesn't work. That is its undergird.
Here's what I was getting at. Most reasoning works via "antecedent + inference rule = consequent". Hence, the very first argument requires both preestablished inference rules and antecedents to start off with (axioms in the superphysical case). With
Reasons gotta be undergirded by something (other than inference rules).
I was alluding to the fact that those initial antecedents are needed. PS I thought "other than" was synonymous with "besides" but apparently only in the sense of "except". I intended to say "Reasons gotta be undergirded by something (in addition to inference rules)." Sorry.

PPS as far as I can tell "undergird" as a noun is not a thing

By your own reasoning, there is no bridge between the metaphysical number 3 and the triplet of apples. It's only the fact of observing reality that we can look at the apples and make a reference to the metaphysical numbers that we formally construct.
I don't think that's the case because of the way 3 is (or can be) defined. In essence, 3 is the abstract commonality of all triplets; this is not circular because triplets can be related to each other without invoking 3 itself by means of bijections. Hence, 3 is naturally connected to all triplets. Why I don't think this works for moral rectitude is because I don't think moral rectitude is (or can be) defined similarly.
In the same vein, behaviors are observed, and we can make observations in reference to a metaphysical "good" and "bad" and assign values of "good" and "bad"
Maybe you can define me what moral rectitude (or metaphysical "goodness" if you prefer) is supposed to be?
I'm sure you already intuitive know that assault and murder are both "bad" but murder is "more bad" than assault, without having to quantify it precisely in a formal system
Ain't that cultural programming? Sure, assault and murder have undesirable consequences for those involved or adjacent, but not all things with undesirable consequences for those involved or adjacent are "bad" right? Or is breaking up with one's still-in-love partner morally repugnant?

I think there's a disconnect here
I think so too, but ain't the whole point of our dialog to try and synchronize our wavelengths?

If you're saying that it isn't, can you argue for why that is?
proposed example for why -- properly (as per your aforementioned definition) -- hypocrisy ≠ "practice what you preach":
Suppose our hypothetical guy is intent on always lying. To act in accordance with his intent, he has to reply "you should always tell the truth" if prompted to opine on lying. this time what he's saying is advice he himself would never follow, yet he's acting in line with his intent.
 
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