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Serious hebephilia might NOT be as common as you might think. attraction to older teens however is very common.

OP is implying that puberty is finished by 14 years old? WTF

Mid-pubescent is a far bigger range than 2 years (12-13) faggot. Those are medians at best.


Ephebophilia refers to attraction to adolescent males you faggot.

The attempt to use the label for foids is BS gay propaganda.

Foids go from being mid-pubescent (puberty ongoing) to which fixation on them is called hebephilia...
to post-pubescent (puberty finished previously) at which point there is no special term for being fixated on them because fixation on puberty-finished women is not considered a paraphilia at all.

The closest I've seen is "teleiophilia" coined by Blanchard in 2000, but it is a term for attraction to adult of either gender and does not imply a gender like Hebephilia (females) or Ephebophilia (males) does.
Single digit IQ. Ephebophilia, in every place that defines it, defines it as a primary of exclusive attraction to post-pubescent teenagers ages 15-19. It doesn’t have to be towards a specific gender. Hebephilia isn’t about gender either, it’s attraction to pubescent kids ages 11-14.

Girls finish puberty at usually ages 15-17. A 14 year old can be developed However.
I guess if you've only wanted to fuck one man in your life you're not gay
According to normies, if you find ONE person of the same sex attractive, you’re still straight but if you find ONE post-pubescent 17 year old even 0.0001% attractive, you’re a pedophile who probably will be attracted to toddlers
 
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16% of men are hebephiles
82% of men are ephebophiles
Kemper why you spreading this "majority of men are gays" bullshit?

86 for boy
Single digit IQ.
Ephebophilia, in every place that defines it, defines it as a primary of exclusive attraction to post-pubescent teenagers ages 15-19.
It doesn’t have to be towards a specific gender.
FourPages

son why you lie
 
mrz's friend ITT
 
Just follow whatever defintion suits you best theory
View attachment 572811

Keep in mind that this was based on limited research as only 2 studies of the total 7 could be utilized to calculate it, from the other ones it seems that the results were greater so really, there is incufficient data.
no i didn't use my own definition. the definition changed, it's not like when IT argue that the definition of incel changed when all it was is hijacked and the original definition is still used by its hijackers and non-blackpilled incels only refuse to identify as it to avoid controversy

the definition of the ephebophilia word was in its infancy and the phenomenon wasn't talked about by sexologists much like its now. the definition evolved without being hijacked or misused. hebephilia is a predominant attraction to pubescent young minors ages 11-14 (typically tanner 2-3 stages of puberty). ephebophilia is a predominant sexual attraction to teenagers in the high school age group (typically mid-teens)
 
no i didn't use my own definition. the definition changed
like I said in PM if you didn't issue an apology to @AwakenedArisen then I would out you for this fallacy: you're arguing a straw man here

Arisen said "Just follow whatever defintion suits you best theory" which does not imply you actually created the definition, just that you're following a definition (created by others) which suits you

Also when it changed, in what order are you saying it changed?

I'm not sure how we describe these definitions, but if I had to throw spaghetti:
1) "ephebophilia wants boys" and "hebephilia wants girls" = gendered definitions (what me and Costell and Goldenson/Anderson and Cimbolic/Carter use)​
2) "ephebophilia wants older teens" and "hebephilia wants younger teens" = aged definitions (what you and tranny-pushing Blanchard use)​

So are you saying it changed from gendered>aged or aged>gendered?

it's not like when IT argue that the definition of incel changed when all it was is hijacked and the original definition is still used by its hijackers
Can you give an example of an IT thread referring to this? This seems like an issue we should cover in the wiki for historical purposes.

Is IT saying that we are the hijackers? Who are they attributing originality to? Antoine Banier? Henry Flynt? Alana Boltwood?

non-blackpilled incels only refuse to identify as it to avoid controversy
Black-pilled incels may refuse to identify to avoid controversy too, while non-blackpilled incels might identify with the label while not accepting the blackpill.
There's probably some correlation though, if that's what you hint at.
Someone high-inhib enough to 'avoid controversy' via shunning labels would probably be high-inhib regarding what thinking patterns they allow themselves and resist black pills.

the definition of the ephebophilia word was in its infancy and the phenomenon wasn't talked about by sexologists much like its now
at what point in time (year? decade?) are you referencing?

The way Costell wrote about it in 1980 sounded like it was in common use at the time in clinical practice regarding sex offenders.

To be a "sexologist" do you need an MD or PhD? Seems like a label not heavily regulated.

Also I put more faith in how Costell used the term in 1980 than I do in how Blanchard used it in 2005.

the definition evolved without being hijacked or misused
This is not an 'evolution', it was 100% a hijack/misuse.

Basically they didn't want a "division by gender" because that lumped heterosexual men and homosexual men into separate groups.

By doing a "division by age" they turn heterosexual men against themselves, splitting them into different camps, while lumping homo and hetero men into shared groups.

Exactly the type of thing a tranny-coddler like Blanchard would love to do to sew confusion.

Originally ephebophilia was applied to ALL pubescent boys being molested, not just those in late puberty

Freund

by re-branding it as "late puberty" instead of "boys in all stages of puberty" they are basically sheltering homosexuals who were pushing for sex with boys in early adolescence by letting them say "oh no, I didn't mean I was advocating fucking boys who just recently started puberty, I meant boys who were nearly finished it!"

hebephilia is a predominant attraction to pubescent young minors ages 11-14 (typically tanner 2-3 stages of puberty).
ephebophilia is a predominant sexual attraction to teenagers in the high school age group (typically mid-teens)

No that's just the Blanchard re-brand. The true meaning of these words is that hebephilia is ALL stages of puberty for girls, and ephebophilia is ALL stages of puberty for boys.

Rencken
 
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like I said in PM if you didn't issue an apology to @AwakenedArisen then I would out you for this fallacy: you're arguing a straw man here

Arisen said "Just follow whatever defintion suits you best theory" which does not imply you actually created the definition, just that you're following a definition (created by others) which suits you

Also when it changed, in what order are you saying it changed?

I'm not sure how we describe these definitions, but if I had to throw spaghetti:
1) "ephebophilia wants boys" and "hebephilia wants girls" = gendered definitions (what me and Costell and Goldenson/Anderson and Cimbolic/Carter use)​
2) "ephebophilia wants older teens" and "hebephilia wants younger teens" = aged definitions (what you and tranny-pushing Blanchard use)​

So are you saying it changed from gendered>aged or aged>gendered?


Can you give an example of an IT thread referring to this? This seems like an issue we should cover in the wiki for historical purposes.

Is IT saying that we are the hijackers? Who are they attributing originality to? Antoine Banier? Henry Flynt? Alana Boltwood?


Black-pilled incels may refuse to identify to avoid controversy too, while non-blackpilled incels might identify with the label while not accepting the blackpill.
There's probably some correlation though, if that's what you hint at.
Someone high-inhib enough to 'avoid controversy' via shunning labels would probably be high-inhib regarding what thinking patterns they allow themselves and resist black pills.


at what point in time (year? decade?) are you referencing?

The way Costell wrote about it in 1980 sounded like it was in common use at the time in clinical practice regarding sex offenders.

To be a "sexologist" do you need an MD or PhD? Seems like a label not heavily regulated.

Also I put more faith in how Costell used the term in 1980 than I do in how Blanchard used it in 2005.


This is not an 'evolution', it was 100% a hijack/misuse.

Basically they didn't want a "division by gender" because that lumped heterosexual men and homosexual men into separate groups.

By doing a "division by age" they turn heterosexual men against themselves, splitting them into different camps, while lumping homo and hetero men into shared groups.

Exactly the type of thing a tranny-coddler like Blanchard would love to do to sew confusion.

Originally ephebophilia was applied to ALL pubescent boys being molested, not just those in late puberty

View attachment 573420

by re-branding it as "late puberty" instead of "boys in all stages of puberty" they are basically sheltering homosexuals who were pushing for sex with boys in early adolescence by letting them say "oh no, I didn't mean I was advocating fucking boys who just recently started puberty, I meant boys who were nearly finished it!"



No that's just the Blanchard re-brand. The true meaning of these words is that hebephilia is ALL stages of puberty for girls, and ephebophilia is ALL stages of puberty for boys.

View attachment 573421
Dude everything you said mere assumptions or theories with no proof backing it up
 
Dude everything you said mere assumptions or theories with no proof backing it up
The proof is in Arisen's quote that you lied about what Arisen said to you.

Saying "whatever definition suits you" is not accusing you of using your "own definition".

You're ducking the other issues too, obv.

1914 truth

I provided proof of books published before our birth of definitions in use for a century bro.

Just drop ephebophile already why you so gay-married to the term?
 
I still sometimes fap to photos from girls at my highschool that I saved 7+ years ago. I’m convinced most men would fuck highschool pussy if they could but soyboys with low t call you a pedo even though men throughout history probably fucked girls that age.
 
The proof is in Arisen's quote that you lied about what Arisen said to you.

Saying "whatever definition suits you" is not accusing you of using your "own definition".

You're ducking the other issues too, obv.

View attachment 573658

I provided proof of books published before our birth of definitions in use for a century bro.

Just drop ephebophile already why you so gay-married to the term?
the term was in its infancy. the definition wasn't firmly established. some definitions used to define attraction to teens IN GENERAL as hebephilia. pedophilia is originally i think even defined as love of children

they didn't just simply misuse the word.
 
the term was in its infancy. the definition wasn't firmly established
Also1914

president of the APA seems like firm establishment to me

some definitions used to define attraction to teens IN GENERAL as hebephilia
that only came later to try and confuse things

pedophilia is originally i think even defined as love of children
no they only used the term to refer to boylovers, only later did the homosexuals try to confuse things by applying the term to men attracted to girls
 

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