"Menacing By Stalking," illegal in Ohio.
(A)(1) No person by engaging in a pattern of conduct..
(1) "Pattern of conduct" means two or more actions or incidents closely related in time, whether or not there has been a prior conviction based on any of those actions or incidents,
I don't understand why they wrote this part twice.
or two or more actions or incidents closely related in time, whether or not there has been a prior conviction based on any of those actions or incidents,
So it means you need to do it 2 or more times in a closely related in time.
(A)(1) ..shall knowingly cause another person to believe that the offender will cause physical harm to the other person or a family or household member of the other person or cause mental distress to the other person or a family or household member of the other person.
So the offender must do it knowingly.
In addition to any other basis for the other person's belief that the offender will cause physical harm to the other person or the other person's family or household member or mental distress to the other person or the other person's family or household member, the other person's belief or mental distress may be based on words or conduct of the offender that are directed at or identify a corporation, association, or other organization that employs the other person or to which the other person belongs.
So as long as you share it with proper conduct and without any incriminating words, it shouldn't be illegal. Otherwise anyone can claim they believe someone will cause them physical harm.
e.g. If I share a business contact with a friend of mine while telling him the contractor(e.g. a plumber) is very good at what he does and he can do business with him just fine, am I or my friend is guilty just because the contractor believes my friend will cause him physical harm? And how about a third party who saw the information that I shared with my friend, who hates plumbers because one of them fucked his wife before, threatens the plumber. How can I know he hates plumbers If I don't even know the said 3rd party?
(2) No person, through the use of any form of written communication or any electronic method of remotely transferring information, including, but not limited to, any computer, computer network, computer program, computer system, or telecommunication device shall post a message or use any intentionally written or verbal graphic gesture with purpose to do either of the following:
(a) Violate division (A)(1) of this section;
(b) Urge or incite another to commit a violation of division (A)(1) of this section.
So it is not illegal as long as you don't violate A(1), or urge or incite another to violate it. Like I mentioned above, it shouldn't be my fault, as long as I don't violate it myself, or urge or incite a 3rd party to violate the (A)(1) by themselves.
(3) No person, with a sexual motivation, shall violate division (A)(1) or (2) of this section.
Does that mean I can't share business contact of a porn star, or someone who works in an industry which is inherently sexual?
(7) "Post a message" means transferring, sending, posting, publishing, disseminating, or otherwise communicating, or attempting to transfer, send, post, publish, disseminate, or otherwise communicate, any message or information, whether truthful or untruthful, about an individual, and whether done under one's own name, under the name of another, or while impersonating another.
with purpose to do either of the following:
(a) Violate division (A)(1) of this section;
(b) Urge or incite another to commit a violation of division (A)(1) of this section.
So you are fine as long as your message or information isn't violating (a) or (b)
(9) "Sexual motivation" has the same meaning as in section
2971.01 of the Revised Code.
(J) "Sexual motivation" means a purpose to gratify the sexual needs or desires of the offender.
Again;
Does that mean I can't share business contact of a porn star, or someone who works in an industry which is inherently sexual?
(E) The state does not need to prove in a prosecution under this section that a person requested or received psychiatric treatment, psychological treatment, or other mental health services in order to show that the person was caused mental distress as described in division (D)(2)(b) of this section.
If I share a plumber's(who has anxiety near females) contact with a foid, can the plumber sue me and the foid and win the case because we caused them "mental distress"?
Like you said, someone might charged with criminal offense for "doxxing" but from what I understand you can get sued for almost anything in US. Doesn't mean what you do or did is automatically illegal.
Please feel free to share your opinion/s on it. Cheers!