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80/20 Rule. What is the "80%" describing?

mänline

mänline

Half man, full child (of God)
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It is not the first time I saw the 80/20 rule explained like this (another one was from FaceandLMS in one of his streams):
80% of women goes for 20% of men.

BUT: Didn't said the Okcupid study only, that 20% of guy are above average for the women(which we can translate in: are attractive to them), but this was for ALL women, for 100% of women.
So the, "80%" of this rule are not the women, who find only these 20% of men attractive, but the 80% is the other part of the men's population, who are not attractive to ALL of the women, 100%.

Which is right?

(The fact that the response rate did not correlate directly with attractiveness is completely is forgotten, being highest among the 6-8 /10 men, not the Gigachads, but should not be discussed here)
 
Youre overthinking it. Top tier men get most of the women. Most men are left with shit and women who think because Chad pumped them once that they deserve a relationship with him
 
"80%" of this rule are not the women, who find only these 20% of men attractive, but the 80% is the other part of the men's population, who are not attractive to ALL of the women
This is correct
 
More like 98/02 rule
 
The OkCupid study aggregated data from thousands of female users. The typical woman finds 80% of men below average attractiveness.
 
80/20 is waaaay outdated. It's more like, 92/8

 
Thanks. So the shitty advice "just go for the 20%, bro" is even more stupid.
Lemme put it in simple terms

80/20 rule means women find 80% of men unattractive and 20% of men attractive
 
It means that only 20% of men, get access to the uncoditional love, and attention of foids. While the remaining 80% of men, can only get foids by providing them with money, gifts, or other materialistic bullshit.
 
80% of men fight for bottom 20% of foids and top 80% of foids fight for top 20% of men.
 
it's just an approximate term indicating that men in higher percentiles easily get multiple women, while men in lower ones get next to none
 
80% of men fight for bottom 20% of foids and top 80% of foids fight for top 20% of men.
No.
Maybe in real life, yes. But according to the study, you cannot say, that there are magically 20% of women, who would be attracted to you when you in the 80% spectrum. This would be a "double 80/20"-rule, which the data does not provide, but is a false interpretation or perhaps even a deliberate distortion of the study from blue pillars.
 
And then 80% of the 20% foids left would only go for the top 20% of the 80% of men and so on and so on and so on like a bad shampoo commercial. Basically you will have 70/100 men fighting over 5 foids.
 
I would’ve to watch to know how he’s explaining it
 

I think in OPs video he's not actually getting it quite rigt. He's saying that 90% of women will be attracted to 10% of men, and its just not true because ALL women will be attracted to the top 10% of men, not just 90%.

A better way to apply the pareto principle would be to say among all sexual encounters that occur, 20% of the men will be responsible for 80% of the encounters. The bottom 80% of men are then left to fight for the other 20% of the sexual encounters.
 
80% of al men are incel
 
I think in OPs video he's not actually getting it quite rigt. He's saying that 90% of women will be attracted to 10% of men, and its just not true because ALL women will be attracted to the top 10% of men, not just 90%
That's what I meant. He gets it wrong, as, unfortunately, quite a few do.
 


It is not the first time I saw the 80/20 rule explained like this (another one was from FaceandLMS in one of his streams):
80% of women goes for 20% of men.

BUT: Didn't said the Okcupid study only, that 20% of guy are above average for the women(which we can translate in: are attractive to them), but this was for ALL women, for 100% of women.
So the, "80%" of this rule are not the women, who find only these 20% of men attractive, but the 80% is the other part of the men's population, who are not attractive to ALL of the women, 100%.

Which is right?

(The fact that the response rate did not correlate directly with attractiveness is completely is forgotten, being highest among the 6-8 /10 men, not the Gigachads, but should not be discussed here)

The top 80% of women will happily share the top 20% of men.
Meanwhile the bottom 20% of women will ACCEPT a man in the bottom 80%, begrudgingly.
However in reality the top 99% of women will share the top 1% of men, and not care about STDs, and the bottom 1% of women will ACCEPT the next 1% of men. The remaining 98% of men rot on here
 
The exact percentages don't matter much be it 90/10 or 80/20; it is absolutely over for majority of the men.
 
Youre overthinking it. Top tier men get most of the women. Most men are left with shit and women who think because Chad pumped them once that they deserve a relationship with him
Mount Everest IQ
 
24593.jpg
 
I think in OPs video he's not actually getting it quite rigt. He's saying that 90% of women will be attracted to 10% of men, and its just not true because ALL women will be attracted to the top 10% of men, not just 90%.

A better way to apply the pareto principle would be to say among all sexual encounters that occur, 20% of the men will be responsible for 80% of the encounters. The bottom 80% of men are then left to fight for the other 20% of the sexual encounters.
Correct
 

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