mänline
Half man, full child (of God)
★★
- Joined
- Feb 7, 2020
- Posts
- 1,670
It is not the first time I saw the 80/20 rule explained like this (another one was from FaceandLMS in one of his streams):
80% of women goes for 20% of men.
BUT: Didn't said the Okcupid study only, that 20% of guy are above average for the women(which we can translate in: are attractive to them), but this was for ALL women, for 100% of women.
So the, "80%" of this rule are not the women, who find only these 20% of men attractive, but the 80% is the other part of the men's population, who are not attractive to ALL of the women, 100%.
Which is right?
(The fact that the response rate did not correlate directly with attractiveness is completely is forgotten, being highest among the 6-8 /10 men, not the Gigachads, but should not be discussed here)